Offspring from this alleged marriage

Afriki's claim that Umme Kalthum binte Fatima (as) had two children called Zaid and Ruqayya is also a lie

We have already proven that the mother of Zaid was Umme Kalthum binte Jawal. If Nasibi such as Afriki are still going to insist that this was Umme Kalthum binte Fatima, then allow us to humiliate this supporter of Mu'awiya yet further:

Afriki claimed:

Ansar.org states:

Two children were born from this marriage, namely Zayd and Ruqayyah.

Reply One - Did Umar marry off his one-year-old daughter?

A point worthy of note is that despite Afriki's claim that Umme Kalthum binte Fatima was baligh (as we agree would be the case if this was indeed the Umme Kalthum) none of his Salaf Ulema would concur with his conclusion. If we rely on the events based on the sources of Ahl'ul Sunnah she was not baligh, and in fact was a milk fed child / not more than five years of age. Umar died in 23 Hijri, the alleged marriage was in 17 Hijri, which means that she was widowed at the age of eleven. Let us assume that at the earliest this Umme Kalthum attained puberty at the age of nine (21 Hijri). That would mean that in those two years she gave birth to Zaid and Ruqayya. Ruqayya's age would be no more than one.

This point needs to be considered for the esteemed Imam of Ahl'ul Sunnah Ibn Qutaybah in "al Maarif" page 80 (Egypt edition) states as follows:

"From the womb of Umme Kalthum, Umar became the father of a girl called Ruqayya, this is that girl whom Umar married to Ibrahim al Najm, and she died whilst living with him".

Perhaps Afriki could explain how Umar married his daughter to Ibrahim bin Najm when she was no more than one / or two years of age?

Reply Two - Umar's widow had not attained puberty when he died

Whilst we have only used guess work when suggesting that Umme Kalthum could have attained puberty at the age of nine, Imam of Ahl'ul Sunnah Allamah Zurqani in Sharh Muwwasab Volume 7 page 9 states:

"Umme Kalthum, wife of Umar did not attain puberty by the time that he had died".

When Umme Kalthum did not attain puberty whilst her husband was alive then how exactly did she conceive two Zaid and Ruqayya?

Reply three - Umar the khalifa was impotent!

Modern day Hanafi scholar Mufti Ghulam Rasul produces the following argument as proof that the marriage to Umme Kalthum (as) is a fabrication. He cites several authentic Sunni sources, we are quoting from his text Hasab aur Nasab Volume 5 page 216-217:

"Saleem narrates an episode that Umar would venture in disguise during the evenings on this occasion and overheard a woman telling her daughter to mix water into milk (selling) container. The girl said 'Mother doesn't Umar ibn al Khattab prohibit mixing water with milk? The woman replied 'He isn't watching us'. The girl said 'What is this, we openly obey him and we privately disobey him? In the morning he summoned his sons Abdullah, Ubaydullah and Asim and then called the girl and said before them 'If your father was physically capable then the first that I would do would be to marry this girl'. Asim then married the girl, and she gave birth to girl who became the mother of Umar ibn Abdul Aziz" (taken from Tarjha naza asth al majalis Volume 2 page 125). The author of Shadharath al Dhahab also narrated this in Volume 1 page 119 and Hafidh Ibn Katheer stated Umar praised the fact that he liked the girls knowledge and he married her to his son Asim and this girl became the maternal grand mother of Umar ibn Abdul Aziz (d.101 Hijri) [al Bidayah wa al Nihaya Volume 9 page 192].

This episode occurred during the Khilafath of Hadhrath Umar (ra), and the marriage of Umme Kalthum is also said to have occurred during his khilafath. If the marriage occurred with Umme binte 'Ali and Zaid and Ruqayya were born out of this relationship then offspring could have likewise been produced from marrying this girl. What is the reason that Umar was physically incapable to marry this girl (that did not mix water with milk) whilst he had the physical strength to marry Umme Kalthum binte 'Ali? When Umar did not marry the girl because he was unable to do so due on accounts of impotence, then he was likewise incapable of marrying Umme Kalthum binte 'Ali. The reality is that Umar's wife name was Umme Kalthum binte Jarwal, narrators used guesswork over the names, they replaced the name Umme Kalthum binte Jarwal with Umme Kalthum binte 'Ali, the fact is Umar Faruq did not marry Umme Kalthum binte 'Ali"
Hasab aur Nasab Volume 5 page 216-217

Now what more can we say? The reference makes it clear that:

• Umar the khalifa was impotent
  
• He refrained from marrying a woman whose qualities he liked on account of his impotence.

This being the case, then how could the same impotent Umar:

1. Contradict his reasons for not marrying and ask for the hand of Umme Kalthum binte 'Ali (as)?
   
2. Manage to produce two children?

If only poor Afriki had bothered to do some homework before making these stupid claims he would not have ended up looking as stupid as he does now!

Reply Four - Umar the khalifa had a phobia of sexual intercourse

We read in Izalathul Khifa Volume 1 page 373 the following testimony of Umar:

"I don't like to have intercourse since when I ejaculate the semen that I release recites Allah's tasbeeh".
Izalathul Khifa Volume 1 page 373

It seems that the Ahl'ul Sunnah are never quite sure how to praise Hadhrath Umar. In the previous narration he admits that he is impotent, but here Umar the khalifa states that his semen recites Allah (swt)'s tasbeeh. Umar was so absolved with administrative affairs during his reign that he developed a complete disdain of sexual intercourse with women. His self imposed monastic lifestyle was so extreme that his poor suffering wives also lost their sex drives - so much so that when it came to Umar seeking to determine how long a woman could live without a man (sexually) he sought the counsel of his daughter rather than his wives.
See:
Tareekh ul Khulafa, by Suyuti, page 142

Is it really believable that something as impure as semen recites Allah (swt)'s tasbeeh? We are sure that no one would ascribe to such a viewpoint, but clearly if Umar was willing to make such a filthy statement as a means of avoiding ejaculation, then why would the same Umar seek to risk spilling his 'holy' semen by marrying and producing further offspring?

Reply Five - Umar's objective was only to attain status via marriage not to benefit from conjugal relations

We read in Zakhair al Ukba page 168 that when Umar made the initial proposal and Imam 'Ali (as) rejected it, Umar pointed out:

"My intention is not that to attain those benefits connected with a wife, my intention is only to attain a closer link to Rasulullah's relatives".

When Umar's sole aim was to attain status and not to benefit from the conjugal relations that are connected with marriage then where did these two children come from? Was he lying at the time of making the proposal?